If someone sells their assets, transfers the money to their family, and then passes away, can the IRS hold the family responsible for unpaid taxes? Or would it only come out of the person’s estate, even if there’s nothing left in it?
Disclaimer: This is just out of curiosity. I’m not planning to do this.
If someone were trying this to avoid taxes, it’s unnecessary and doesn’t work. The better option would be to pass away owning the stocks so the heirs get a step-up in basis. That way, they’d pay little to no tax if they sell the stocks later. If someone transfers the money before dying, the IRS can go after the family members under the concept of fraudulent conveyance if the estate is insolvent. Whether they actually would depends on many factors.
Sloane said: @Bali
In this case, the stocks were already sold before the person died.
Got it. In that case, the second part of what I said applies. If someone was trying this as a plan to avoid taxes, it’s unnecessary and wouldn’t work anyway.
This is why people hire CPAs. If the person dies owning the stocks, the heirs get a step-up in basis, wiping out unrealized gains. They can then sell with minimal taxes or just hold onto them.
@Sloane
Yes, the IRS can take action against whoever received the money as a gift. They have procedures to recover unpaid liabilities from third parties if assets were transferred before the liability was settled.
Blai said: @Sloane
The IRS would first go after the deceased’s estate for the taxes.
That’s true, but if the estate is insolvent—meaning there are no assets left—the IRS can collect from the family members who received the transferred assets.